Ok

By continuing your visit to this site, you accept the use of cookies. These ensure the smooth running of our services. Learn more.

Some or All? Matthew 28:17... Help I Need a Greek Scholar

OK, so Matthew's ending was meant to be easy after John and Mark.  It is, I'm happy with the ideas that are emerging (wish they'd done it earlier in the week, but still).  I'm going to side step any weird and wonderful debates about the trinitarian formula for Baptism, but I have a question about verse 17...

Roughly it is rendered thus...

When the disciples saw Jesus they worshipped hum but some of them doubted.

But (thanks Word International Commentary) the more accurate translation from the Greek is,

.. they prostrated themselves [suggesting worship] but they doubted.

In other words, it wasn't that 'some' doubted it was 'all' of them.

Now I'm happy enough either way, can work with each of these, but why is it that the word 'some' has been inserted (in any language I can understand, or make a stab at deciphering, (so not many))?  What is so uncomfortable about all the eleven being uncertain at this point?  Such uncertainty is clearly presumed in other gospels, so why do we wriggle uncomfortably when Matthew states it?

 

καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν, οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν

Some MS have

και ιδοντες αυτον προσεκυνησαν αυτω οι δε εδιστασαν

But that's still a 'they' not a 'some of them' isn't it?

 

HELP! I need a proper NT person to explain it to me! Sean where are you?!!

The comments are closed.