OK, so you need to understand the language games to make sense of this question (post modern) but I think it is a fair question to ask.
Having (finally) found a real attempt by a serious writer to explain what they understand by both Modernism and Post-modernism, I am left with the question of whether the latter is really an example of the former. If modernity sought absolutes and was the product of a white, male-dominated, Euro-centric context, then Postmodernism is actually thoroughly modern, isn't it? Its overarching absolute is that there is no absolute and most of its thinkers, seemingly, are French men.
OK, so this is over simplistic but the slide from modernity to post-modernity, like that from the Middle Ages to the Enlightenment is exactly that - a slide not a sudden paradigm shift. As a child of modernity, post modernity carries with it the taint of its forebears and expresses itself through the very structures and norms it resents. The way it is described and critiqued (is that subtly different from problematised, a, seemingly, Postmodern word?) in the book I'm reading leaves me thinking that it is as yet in a kind of 'adolesence' where it is more concerned at kicking against its forebears than becoming a self-reflective 'adult.' Again, I'm sure this is over simplified and next week I'll read something that answers my questions - we'll see.